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http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-1360801/Haydor-Khan-cleared-rape-climbing-wrong-bed.html
Basically, for those who don't want to read the link, the individual concerned got drunk, ended up going back to the wrong hotel room and started having sex with a sleeping woman who he claims he thought to be his girlfriend. When she woke up he grabbed her mobile phone and ran away, but was arrested and then subsequently charged with rape.
He was later cleared of rape by a jury on the basis he was too drunk to realise that he had got into the wrong bed with the wrong woman. The fact he had had sex with a sleeping woman who was not in a position to have given consent has seemingly not been taken into account.
Moreover, the article specifically states that his girlfriend had previously told him that she was not in the mood for sex as she was feeling ill. Therefore, it should already have been assumed that there was a lack of consent on the part of his girlfriend, so even if he'd got into bed with "the right woman" and started having sex with her, it would surely still have been rape.
For me this raises a huge amount of questions.
If a person gets drunk and gets into a car, drives home, hits someone on the way home and kills them, they are held accountable for their actions.
Even if that drunk driver is pulled over and breath-tested, they are charged with driving under the influence and can receive a large fine and a driving ban or both.
So why is it that a drunk man can get into bed with a woman, start having sex with her, and not be held accountable for that?
Yet again a man has got away with rape on the basis that a jury somehow feel that he wasn't responsible for his actions.
And what of the woman he raped? Where is her justice? She was entitled to not have been violated; a man had sex with her against her will, and yet this fact is seemingly irelevant.
And given the girlfriend had explicitly stated she did not want sex earlier in the evening, there was no consent even from the right woman. So why is who the man had sex with important here?
Since when did having non consentual sex with a partner not equal rape?
And since when did consuming enough alcohol that you cannot distinguish whether the woman you are having sex with is actually your girlfriend mean that it's ok to rape a woman.
If a woman gets drunk and is raped, more often than not she is told that it is her fault for getting into such a state that she could not be in a position to give consent or otherwise.
So why is this different for a man?
Basically, for those who don't want to read the link, the individual concerned got drunk, ended up going back to the wrong hotel room and started having sex with a sleeping woman who he claims he thought to be his girlfriend. When she woke up he grabbed her mobile phone and ran away, but was arrested and then subsequently charged with rape.
He was later cleared of rape by a jury on the basis he was too drunk to realise that he had got into the wrong bed with the wrong woman. The fact he had had sex with a sleeping woman who was not in a position to have given consent has seemingly not been taken into account.
Moreover, the article specifically states that his girlfriend had previously told him that she was not in the mood for sex as she was feeling ill. Therefore, it should already have been assumed that there was a lack of consent on the part of his girlfriend, so even if he'd got into bed with "the right woman" and started having sex with her, it would surely still have been rape.
For me this raises a huge amount of questions.
If a person gets drunk and gets into a car, drives home, hits someone on the way home and kills them, they are held accountable for their actions.
Even if that drunk driver is pulled over and breath-tested, they are charged with driving under the influence and can receive a large fine and a driving ban or both.
So why is it that a drunk man can get into bed with a woman, start having sex with her, and not be held accountable for that?
Yet again a man has got away with rape on the basis that a jury somehow feel that he wasn't responsible for his actions.
And what of the woman he raped? Where is her justice? She was entitled to not have been violated; a man had sex with her against her will, and yet this fact is seemingly irelevant.
And given the girlfriend had explicitly stated she did not want sex earlier in the evening, there was no consent even from the right woman. So why is who the man had sex with important here?
Since when did having non consentual sex with a partner not equal rape?
And since when did consuming enough alcohol that you cannot distinguish whether the woman you are having sex with is actually your girlfriend mean that it's ok to rape a woman.
If a woman gets drunk and is raped, more often than not she is told that it is her fault for getting into such a state that she could not be in a position to give consent or otherwise.
So why is this different for a man?