hush
Retired Staff
- MBTI
- pocketoli
- Enneagram
- ☻
Almost always, when referring to the percentage of the population that is one type (such as INFJ, usually considered to be around 1-2% I believe), these percentages are based on test results gathered in the United States. Is it safe to assume that the rest of the nations around the world have an equal or similar distribution of types?
For instance, would 1-2% of the population worldwide be accurate for INFJs (which would be between 68.5-138.8 million INFJs)?
For instance, would 1-2% of the population worldwide be accurate for INFJs (which would be between 68.5-138.8 million INFJs)?