invisible
On Holiday
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at the moment im studying an information and knowledge management postgraduate degree. we are reading and discussing research about the nature of knowledge. the following is an excerpt from my learning journal that i am sharing here for anyone who might be interested in this, since it is not possible for me to share it with my class. i attempted to discuss this with my class, but every person who spoke disagreed with me, so it isnt really possible for me to discuss it with them any further.
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At class this week there was a guest lecturer talking about practice theory. I liked her a lot but once again she mentioned that "all knowledge is inherently social". She mentioned this as though it were a verified fact. For some reason, it doesn't seem to bother anyone but me that this statement is being made in the complete absence of any empirical support but as though it is absolute truth. Why doesn't it bother anyone that this statement is being made without any evidence to support it? This is so unscientific, I can't understand it.
(Teacher) mentioned to me an alternative theory for what knowledge can be apart from social. But what I am more interested in is that we are making a conclusive statement that has zero empirical support. Obtaining an alternative theory is not necessary to criticising applications of current theory. The absence of an alternative plan for addressing the situation does not invalidate problems with the current way of thinking. I'm not an experienced information scientist and I would hardly know where to begin in formulating an alternative theory, but that doesn't change the fact that the way that theory is being applied in the discipline is not correct.
Let's take for example, the theory of "divine knowledge". (The nature of my own personal beliefs have no relevance to this as an academic question.) Divine knowledge is not social in any way, it is known only by God, who represents the single original creator of all other social beings, and existed prior to any possibility of social interaction. Scientifically, the hypothesis of divine knowledge cannot be empirically tested, it is a matter of belief, because we cannot access divinity for testing. However, a hypothesis of divine knowledge does not exclude a hypothesis of social knowledge, they can coexist: in the same conception of the universe, knowledge can exist in a form that is social, and another form that is divine. Similarly, any other possible hypothesis of knowledge could potentially coexist with a hypothesis of divine knowledge - say let's call it "individual knowledge". I have no idea what "individual knowledge" would consist of, let's just say it is another theory of knowledge that is not social. It may not necessarily deny the possibility of social forms of knowledge, and it may not necessarily exclude any other potential knowledge forms either. It just represents a theory of knowledge that has no social component. Maybe it is a theory of knowledge represented in terms of purely individually received sensory information from the world that we perceive through our senses - images and sounds? Or maybe of physiological feedback supplied from within our own enclosed physical bodies? It doesn't matter, it could be any theory. What matters is that it is an alternative that is available for exploration.
However, the statement that is repeatedly being made in the literature and by individuals in classes is that "all knowledge is social". This is a definitive statement to the effect that all knowledge, categorically and with no exception, is inherently social by nature. Not only is this hypothesis just as untestable scientifically as a hypothesis of divine knowledge, but it deliberately excludes any other possibility of what knowledge could be. How can we discover things that we do not know, if we are intentionally refusing to acknowledge their possibility? "It is the mark of an educated mind to rest satisfied with the degree of precision which the nature of the subject admits and not to seek exactness where only an approximation is possible." (Aristotle)
As scientists, how can we ethically commit ourselves exclusively to an empirically unsupported conception of everything that knowledge can only ever be, when all that we can say for certain about the mind is that it is a strange and mysterious domain that we do not properly understand?
And this comes back to the most important practical question of all, the big reason of why people are employed or studying in this institution. What is the purpose of research if it is possible for us to already know the answer? The actual reason for why we are doing research on this is because we don't understand knowledge and the way it happens in the mind, or people's bodies, or whatever - we are doing research to explore our hypotheses about it and see what we can figure out, because we want to understand it better. So why is this fundamental idea, "all knowledge is inherently social", being taken for granted as the truth, without any need for research?
*
At class this week there was a guest lecturer talking about practice theory. I liked her a lot but once again she mentioned that "all knowledge is inherently social". She mentioned this as though it were a verified fact. For some reason, it doesn't seem to bother anyone but me that this statement is being made in the complete absence of any empirical support but as though it is absolute truth. Why doesn't it bother anyone that this statement is being made without any evidence to support it? This is so unscientific, I can't understand it.
(Teacher) mentioned to me an alternative theory for what knowledge can be apart from social. But what I am more interested in is that we are making a conclusive statement that has zero empirical support. Obtaining an alternative theory is not necessary to criticising applications of current theory. The absence of an alternative plan for addressing the situation does not invalidate problems with the current way of thinking. I'm not an experienced information scientist and I would hardly know where to begin in formulating an alternative theory, but that doesn't change the fact that the way that theory is being applied in the discipline is not correct.
Let's take for example, the theory of "divine knowledge". (The nature of my own personal beliefs have no relevance to this as an academic question.) Divine knowledge is not social in any way, it is known only by God, who represents the single original creator of all other social beings, and existed prior to any possibility of social interaction. Scientifically, the hypothesis of divine knowledge cannot be empirically tested, it is a matter of belief, because we cannot access divinity for testing. However, a hypothesis of divine knowledge does not exclude a hypothesis of social knowledge, they can coexist: in the same conception of the universe, knowledge can exist in a form that is social, and another form that is divine. Similarly, any other possible hypothesis of knowledge could potentially coexist with a hypothesis of divine knowledge - say let's call it "individual knowledge". I have no idea what "individual knowledge" would consist of, let's just say it is another theory of knowledge that is not social. It may not necessarily deny the possibility of social forms of knowledge, and it may not necessarily exclude any other potential knowledge forms either. It just represents a theory of knowledge that has no social component. Maybe it is a theory of knowledge represented in terms of purely individually received sensory information from the world that we perceive through our senses - images and sounds? Or maybe of physiological feedback supplied from within our own enclosed physical bodies? It doesn't matter, it could be any theory. What matters is that it is an alternative that is available for exploration.
However, the statement that is repeatedly being made in the literature and by individuals in classes is that "all knowledge is social". This is a definitive statement to the effect that all knowledge, categorically and with no exception, is inherently social by nature. Not only is this hypothesis just as untestable scientifically as a hypothesis of divine knowledge, but it deliberately excludes any other possibility of what knowledge could be. How can we discover things that we do not know, if we are intentionally refusing to acknowledge their possibility? "It is the mark of an educated mind to rest satisfied with the degree of precision which the nature of the subject admits and not to seek exactness where only an approximation is possible." (Aristotle)
As scientists, how can we ethically commit ourselves exclusively to an empirically unsupported conception of everything that knowledge can only ever be, when all that we can say for certain about the mind is that it is a strange and mysterious domain that we do not properly understand?
And this comes back to the most important practical question of all, the big reason of why people are employed or studying in this institution. What is the purpose of research if it is possible for us to already know the answer? The actual reason for why we are doing research on this is because we don't understand knowledge and the way it happens in the mind, or people's bodies, or whatever - we are doing research to explore our hypotheses about it and see what we can figure out, because we want to understand it better. So why is this fundamental idea, "all knowledge is inherently social", being taken for granted as the truth, without any need for research?