What do others think of this article at "A Voice For Men":
There's an asterisk on the photo in this article claiming that "Women initiate 70% of relationship violence", but this asterisk appears not to refer to any external source, but only to the article itself. I found this very confusing, as usually asterisks are used in articles to refer to some external source. I used my browser's "find" feature on the CDC reports that the article refers to, but the only reference to 70% that I could find anywhere was "IPV victimization begins at an early age with nearly 70% off female victims and nearly 54% of male victims having experienced IPV prior to age 25". I can't find any information about the origin of this statistic claiming that 70% of relationship violence is initiated by women. Also, I just don't know what it means. How do you tell whether someone initiated the violence, and what does it mean that they initiated it? Maybe they said something insensitive like "I don't care if you had a bad day," and their partner bashed them for it. Does the insensitive remark mean that they initiated the violence?
The main technical problem with the article is that it infers causation from correlation. It uses the word "predictor", but this is misleading, because there is no indication that the violence was caused by the femininity. It also selects information that is relevant to its thesis, and ignores conflicting information of the report to do with violence against bisexual women and types of sexual violence amongst gay men.
The information of these reports seems to be derived from the self-disclosures of individuals who have been subjected to violence. Since it is more likely for women to disclose violence, is it possible that lesbian women disclose more often because they are further from the influence of men? I'm not at all insisting that this is the truth, but I'm just saying - couldn't there be other reasons for why the data say what they do, other than that women are causative of violence on themselves?
I don't understand what it means about lesbianism being toxic. The author seems to want to make a point about femininity causing violence, but obviously, the women in heterosexual relationships were not lesbians. I'm just not sure how to understand how lesbianism is supposed to fit into all of this. I guess it is just meant to say that the more women there are in a relationship, the worse that the relationship is? What am I missing?
I think that the thing that is most concerning for me about the article is that it seems to blame the victims of assaults for what they have gone through. I find this very problematic, not necessarily because it reminds me of stereotypical statements of violence perpetrators to the effect that "s/he made me do it!" or "s/he asked for it!", but more because it seems impossible to resolve the problem of violence by asking the victims of the violence to be accountable for the behaviours of the violence perpetrators. It is the perpetrator of the violence that directs the actions of their own body, ie. goes through with committing the beating or rape. How is a victim supposed to stop a perpetrator from directing their own body in violent ways? How can a perpetrator of violence be rehabilitated and stop committing violence if they can not be responsible for their behaviours?
I feel like I would need to look at the statistics from the reports in a lot more depth to really understand them properly, but without doing that, already I feel like there is something seriously wrong with the approach taken by the author of the article. What do others think about this article? The author of the article appears to be a respected person in this community, and the article is prominently displayed at the site index. Am I wrong to find the approach of the article concerning?